2/5 Wynn 8 handed. I have $850 all relevant players have me covered except MP with about $350. I've been at the table 15 minutes after having been moved from a broken game. UTG is unknown, UTG+1 is loose but not super loose, MP is a LAG goofball, SB seems mostly tight but he did make a thin river call earlier.

The dealer is a temp brought in for the Wynn Classic and is in way over his head.

Preflop: MP open raises to $20 before anyone else has acted. There's a big production made about how he can't raise yet and he eventually takes his bet back and keeps the $20 in his hand. After seeing this, UTG+1, knowing that MP is obligated to raise if the action doesn't change, open limps out of turn. UTG+2 folds, MP now limps and the dealer doesn't say anything, HJ folds (all out of turn). I point out the action is on UTG, but I don't say anything about MP needing to raise. UTG now limps. I have in the CO and overlimp. Button folds, SB raises to $60. It folds back to me, I reraise to $180.

Thoughts welcome on all decisions, including keeping mum about MP's action...

Was the floor called to the table at any point? Technically it is the dealer's job to correct the action and if the dealer doesn't or can't do it then it is the floor's job. I would not have said anything about the action, I would have just told the dealer to call the floor over if the dealer didn't correct the 1st mistake. It's really hard to comment on the rest of the hand because of the craziness.

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I'm fine with not saying anything about the MP player needing to raise but to further dissect what happened I think I would need to know why you overlimped with AKs in that spot. That seems super weird. Were you expecting the small blind to raise? If so then I think I can justify your limp. Other than that I think a raise would be more prudent. I think as played I'm fine stacking off because you're never supposed to have a hand there being the 1000th limper, lol. Curious as to where this goes.

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No. I suspected UTG+1 (or possibly UTG) was going to limp/raise knowing the pot had to be raised if they limped. There's also a better than average chance an A is in another player's hand (specifically MP's hand).

I'm not defending my overlimp here, just stating why I did it.

But not calling out MP and saying he had to raise thus now allows UTG+1 to not re-raise, so by limping you are assuming that this will be a limped pit and you're fine playing a limped pot with AKs? Just trying to understand. Thx.

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I'd rather play a limped pot with AKs multiway as opposed to getting repopped by an EP limp/raiser who I assumed was dealt a hand worth raising up front. I was shocked that he limp/folded, and if he had called SB's raise I would have mucked, considering SB is squeezing here approximately never and probably has a better than average raising hand himself.

That was my thought process at the time anyway.

Ok, although being 850 deep (170 big blinds) I'd never be looking to fold AKs for a single raise as you said you would have folded in position if the sb raised and UTG+1 called.

Anyway, as played I like the back raise and if sb re raises I'd shove since you don't rep much considering your late position limp.

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after MP's fold to SB's raise i think i just call the 60. As you said he's likely to have the strongest hand and a raise from you at this point looks a lot like a small to mid pocket pair which he has crushed with jj or QQ which is really likely.

You have position and ~150 pot is a good starting size for the stack sizes. My guess is he's got a slight lead on you with QQ or so, but shouldn't be tough to manage in position. You can probably float his flop bet and see all 5